Mapping the Terrain
Sometimes I have a hard time keeping track of just what the different positions in the free will debate are. To help clarify a little, I offer the following map of the terrain. I'm interested to hear whether this seems like an appropriate breakdown.
The basic terminology will be 'compatibilism' and 'incompatibilism', but I think it's important to be clear about what thesis is supposedly compatible or incompatible with what other thesis. To that end, I think there should be three different compatibility questions -- 1) Is determinism compatible with the ability to do otherwise?, 2) Is determinism compatible with moral responsibility?, and 3) Is indeterminism compatible with moral responsibility? There's also a fourth question that's not about compatibility, but which seems equally important, namely: 4) Does moral responsibility require the ability to do otherwise?
Call someone who answers (1) with a 'Yes' an APCompatibilist and someone who answers (1) with a 'No' an APIncompatibilist. Call someone who answers (2) with a 'Yes' a D-MRCompatibilist and someone who answers (2) with a 'No' a D-MRIncompatibilist. Call someone who answers (3) with a 'Yes' an I-MRCompatibilist and someone who answers (3) with a 'No' an I-MRIncompatibilist. Finally, call someone who answers (4) with a 'Yes' a PAPist and someone who answers (4) with a 'No' a PAP-denier. Now, with these positions staked out, we can start to see the different combinations and how they map onto the views people actually hold.
"Official" semi-compatibilism = D-MRCompatibilist + I-MRCompatibilist + PAP-denial
Fischer's version of semi-compatibilism = APIncompatibilist + D-MRCompatibilist + I-MRCompatibilist + PAP-denial
Pereboom's view = APIncompatibilist + D-MRIncompatibilist + I-MRIncompatibilist + PAPist
"Traditional" compatibilism (local-miracle, altered-past, conditional-analysis) = APCompatibilist
Galen Strawson's view = D-MRIncompatibilist + I-MRIncompatibilist (because MR is impossible!)
Kane's and van Inwagen's view = APincompatibilist + D-MRIncompatibilist + I-MRCompatibilist (event-causation) + PAPist.
O'Connor's and Clarke's (former) view = APIncompatibilist + D-MRIncompatibilist + I-MRCompatibilist (agent-causation) + PAPist
Ginet's and Goetz's view = APIncompatibilist + D-MRIncompatibilist + I-MRCompatibilist (no causation) + PAPist
I'm sure I'm missing some view here, so please feel free to chime in. Now, another interesting question is: What views should we associate with labels like 'Source Incompatibilism' and 'Leeway Incompatibilism' and 'Libertarianism' and 'Hard Determinism'? Here is what I'm inclined to do:
Source Incompatibilism = (AT LEAST) D-MRIncompatibilist (because of sourcehood concerns)
Leeway Incompatibilism = APIncompatibilist and PAPist, THEREFORE D-MRIncompatibilist.
Libertarianism = (AT LEAST) D-MRIncompatibilist, and I-MRCompatibilist (whether no cause, event-cause, or agent-cause) -- and by the way, we are morally responsible,so determinism is false.
Hard Determinism = D-MRIncompatibilist -- and by the way, determinism is true, so we're not MR.
At least, that's what I'm inclined to say about these views to begin with. But you'll notice that even this fails to distinguish between, say, hard determinists about the ability to do otherwise and hard determinists about MR, or between libertarians about the ability to do otherwise and libertarians about MR. Also, this way of mapping things out doesn't really lend itself to seeing the connections between different parts of a view, and that is what sometimes makes a view distinctive. I tried to capture that by using 'therefore' in Leeway Incompatibilism, but I'm sure there are some other connections this map doesn't pick up on.
I'm not sure what all this shows (except maybe that our terminology is really messy!), but I hope it is a way of gaining a bit of clarity on the situation. Suggestions and amendments welcome.

About Pereboom's view:
PAPist. Pereboom spends a lot of effort arguing against the importance of APs. I think, however (please correct me if I am mistaken; Frankfurt examples confuse me), that he only denies the relevance of robust AP. So he would be a PAPist, but only trivially so?
I-MRIncompatibilist. Pereboom also spends a lot of effort arguing for the coherence of agent causal free will. Pereboom distinguishes between this (i) kind of indeterminism and the (ii) simple event indeterminism which follows probabilistic laws. Pereboom is an I-MRIncompatibilist in the sense of (ii): we can't have free will even if the world is indeterministic in that sense. But according to Pereboom, we might have free will if we world was (i) indeterministic (and so, he does not seem to be an I-MRIcompatibilist).
Again, please excuse me if I have misrepresented the subtleties of Pereboom's view. I've misrepresented it before...
Here's another important line to draw: between (iii) those who think it matters whether a conscious agent designs one's life and (iv) those who think this is irrelevant. With respect to moral responsibility Fischer, Pereboom, Frankfurt, Dennett, and Watson all seem to belong to (iv), not to mention Hobbes. Mele seems to be committed to (iii). Fischer seems to belong to (iii) with respect, not to moral responsibility, but "blameworthiness." Similarly, Paul Russell seems to belong to (iii) with respect to moral responsibility between designer and designee: others can hold the designee morally responsible, but not the designer.
Another important line to draw (from amongst the countless we might draw) is between subjectivists and non-subjectivists. In particular, Fischer and Galen Strawson agree about subjectivism. In this respect, Strawson differs from non-subjectivist free will "skeptics" (including myself, perhaps Pereboom, Honderich?).
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 13, 2006 at 01:13 PM
Thanks, Kip. About PAP -- I made an error in typing. I think it's clear Pereboom is a PAP-denier, not a PAPist. And about whether he is an I-MRIncompatibilist, I think you're right. If agent-causation existed, we could be morally responsible. So in addition to answering the various compatibility questions, we'll need to map the positive theses too -- that is, are we in fact morally responsible? Does determinism in fact obtain? And so on...
Posted by: Neal | March 13, 2006 at 01:55 PM
About Pereboom and PAP: what of my suggestion that Pereboom is PAPist but not a PRAPist (where PRAPist means one who claims that robust alternative possibilities are necessary for moral responsibility)? In other words, might Pereboom agree that moral responsibility entails alternative possibilities, but only trivially so? Or am I mischaracterizing his view?
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 13, 2006 at 02:12 PM
Does anyone know of an argument in favor of I-MR-incompatibilism that is not also a more general argument in support of free will denialism? I can't imagine what such a thing would look like.
There is the Mind argument, but that is really an argument for restrictivism (which is not noted above btw).
There is Strawson's ultimacy argument, which, of course, is an argument for free will denialism. Similarly, van Inwagen's criticisms of indeterminism (his mystery argument, for instance) seem to be extensions of his argument for D-MR-incompatibilism. Both Strawson and van Inwagen seem to argue as follows:
(1) D-MR-incompatibilism is true.
(2) Indeterminism cannot increase the level of freedom or moral responsibility in the world.
(3) Thus, free will denialism is true.
There are also particular criticisms of incompatibilist accounts. But none of these can be generalized to support I-MR-incompatibilism as far as I can see. The reason is that all of these criticisms seem to hinge on a specific place in which an indeterministic event is located. If such an event is located, say, at a time in the remote past or at some remote region of space, it is unclear how it would lead one to draw conclusions about moral responsibility but indeterminism would be true nonetheless.
I'd be very interested to know if I'm wrong about this. In fact, I'm so interested that I will gladly buy anyone a beer if they can show me one persuasive argument for I-MR-incompatibilism that cannot be generalized into a persuasive argument for free will denialism. Any one interested in taking me up on this challenge may collect at this year's INPC or Pacific APA.
Best, Joe
Posted by: Joe Campbell | March 13, 2006 at 02:37 PM
Joe,
I can't imagine winning a beer would be this easy, so I'm probably wrong but -- wouldn't a Hobart-type view be an argument for I-MRIncompatibilism that doesn't generalize into an argument for free will denialism? I take it that Hobart is a (or a Hobartian could be a) D-MRCompatibilist but a I-MRIncompatibilist. The only way we can have the required sort of control over our actions is if determinism is true, otherwise our actions are just random.
I haven't read the Hobart in a while, though. Am I misreading this sort of view?
Posted by: Neal | March 13, 2006 at 03:24 PM
Neal,
If Joe is asking for people who are both D-MRIncompatibilists and I-MRIncompatibilists, but are not free will deniers, then it is a rather tough challenge indeed; not even Hondrich fits here.
But, if Joe is asking for people who are both D-MRCompatibilists and I-MRIncompatibilists, then it seems any Hard Compatibilist will fit the bill. If this is the case, it seems that he has outsmarted himself this time... and owes you a beer! ;)
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 13, 2006 at 04:15 PM
Kip,
Above you suggest that "Pereboom is PAPist but not a PRAPist (where PRAPist means one who claims that robust alternative possibilities are necessary for moral responsibility)." I think that this is exactly right. Pereboom does seem to think that even in an FSC, agents have some alternative possiblities. On page 37 of Living without Free Will, he writes: “My own view is that moral responsibility requires that the actions’ actual causal history have certain indeterministic features, but that it might well be that alternative possibilities – not necessarily of the robust sort – are entailed by the actual causal history’s having those features. Nevertheless, the aspect of the action that has the important role in explaining why agents would be morally responsible is the nature of the actual causal history, and not the alternative possibilities"--this seems to support your claim here.
Posted by: Kevin Timpe | March 13, 2006 at 04:28 PM
Kevin: Thanks! I look forward to meeting you at INPC.
Neal: Hobarg may have claimed that moral responsibility entails determinism (as, I think, Hume claimed), but both are just mistaken. Joe draws attention to the problem. For example, if there is an indeterministic particle in a far away galaxy, then determinism is false, but all of one's behavior is not "random" but orderly.
Mark: Nothing about hard compatibilism (in any of the various senses offered by Kane, Watson, or Tom Clark) seems to imply I-MRIncompatibilism. To my knowledge, hard compatibilism is silent about the compatibility between indeterminism and moral responsibility.
As much as I would love for Joe to buy me a beer, I agree that it is impossible to satisfy his challenge.
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 13, 2006 at 04:44 PM
Kip,
I used "Hard Compatibilism" in the traditional sense which is taken to mean that responsibility requires determinism to be true.
Furthermore, according to chaos theory your suggestion that "if there is an indeterministic particle in a far away galaxy, then determinism is false, but all of one's behavior is not 'random' but orderly" is not at all as trivial as it seems. To the extent we believe in the tenets of chaos theory, we must believe that even one indeterministically behaving particle would have radical implications on successive iterations of the whole system as those indeterministic effects cascade through the causal chains. In other words, chaos theory predicts that divergences would compound over a continuum of space-time events, which is counterintuitive since we are naturally inclined to believe that it would be diluted instead.
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 13, 2006 at 05:44 PM
Mark:
I've never heard of that usage. Can you give me an example of where the term is used that way?
About chaos theory. I cited the example about the far away galaxy to disprove the claim that moral responsibility entails determinism. You suggest that chaos theory might complicate the situation. But, in the spirit of my original post, I can just stipulate that, in my example, chaos theory does not hold. So the example would still serve as a counter-example to the claim that moral responsibility entails determinism.
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 13, 2006 at 05:56 PM
Joe,
Suppose one thought that acting freely just was being able to do otherwise and that the local miracle compatibilist was basically right about the ability to do otherwise, in that agents in deterministic universes have the ability to do otherwise because they have the weak ability to break laws of nature. Suppose further that one thought that being morally responsible for what one does requires being the ultimate source of what one does. Then there is room to develop an ultimate source argument that being morally responsible requires indeterminism that would not transfer over to show that acting freely similarly required indeterminism, as acting freely does not require being the ultimate source of what one does but only being able to do other than one does. In short, if one sees the existence of the ability to do otherwise as undemanding and that acting freely is just to have the ability to do other than one in fact does, while thinking that being morally responsible requires more than just the existence of such a weak ability to do otherwise but, say, being the ultimate source of one’s act, then it seems to me that there is room to think that there are arguments in favor of I-MR-incompatibilism that do not generalize to free will denialism. Whether there are any good arguments for such a position is another question, but I take it that that wasn’t your question: It was rather, I take it, is there a stable position that entails free will realism and I-MR-incompatibilism. It seems to me that the answer to this is “yes,” it’s stable and a live option. It is, I guess, the flip side of semi-compatibilism: Acting freely is compatible with determinism but acting with moral responsibility is not. I don't know anyone who holds this position.
Even if you aren’t paying for my beer, I hope you and I will be having one together at INPC.
Posted by: michael nelson | March 13, 2006 at 07:15 PM
I find it hard to believe that your questions 1-4 could do all the work in mapping positions in the *free will* debates. I might be missing something here. The problem is that none of them mentions *free will* at all. All they are asking are the compatibility questions between determinism, moral responsibility, and possibilities to do otherwise. But, with any of these there is no uncontroversial conceptual connection to free will. It seems that the assumption for you is that moral responsibility and free will come as a package, but this might be questioned and it is rejected by many. And, many of the views you classify with the questions address free will directly. I guess I would just like to see free will related questions in questions that classify views about free will. There has to be different answers to the questions of how free will is related to moral responsibility and, thus at least this must be asked.
Posted by: Jussi Suikkanen | March 14, 2006 at 12:54 AM
I confess to loving taxonomies, and this is a pretty good one. (Nice post, Neal. Lots of interesting comments, too.) Perhaps all-too-predictably, I think there is a more basic distinction that should be added to the mix: a distinction between whether the theory is descriptive or diagnostic on the one hand and whether the theory is prescriptive on the other. The various views Neal suggests could be reproduced on each side of this more basic distinction, but it would better allow room for a range of views that think there is a gap between how we tend to think about free will and how we ought to think about free will.
I am also increasingly inclined to think that any taxonomy of at least descriptive/ diagnostic views needs to allow room for the possibility of mixed views on various compatibility questions. It seems an upshot of the data from the experimental types that appears to support views like Smilansky and Honderich's claims about varied sources of incompatibilist and compatibilist intuitions. In principle, this sort of distinction could be reproduced on the prescriptive side of the taxonomy, as well.
Two other questions one could ask that would map out different configurations of the terrain: whether the account of responsibility (or free will) is cognitivist, etc. and whether responsibility (or free will) is compatible with physicalist reductionism. (Shout out to Eddy on this last one.)
Posted by: Manuel | March 14, 2006 at 06:06 AM
Neal's taxonomy is very helpful (I tried to create a 3D graph of the positions once but it didn't work--there's more than 3 axes!). It is also illustrative of the myopic focus on the question of determinism (and indeterminism) and its relationship to free will, moral responsibility, and the ability to do otherwise. Obviously, there's a lot to be debated about these questions. But while we have these ivory tower discussions, there's a world out there wondering whether we have free will and moral responsibility (or how much we have) given what the sciences are telling us about ourselves. And the scientists seem happy to tell the world the answer (usually they say "no" because they mistakenly think incompatibilism is the only option and that what science is showing is that we are deterministic systems, when in fact compatibilism is at least an option and, regardeless, what the science--i.e., psychology, cog sci, neuroscience--is showing has nothing to do with whether determinism is true but rather whether certain causal explanations of our decision-making and action are true, and *maybe* whether there is some evidence that epiphenomenalism is true or reductive physicalism or the unlikelihood of agent causation, etc.).
Anyway, you've heard this riff before and if you're at my INPC talk, you'll hear it again--supported by the hard evidence of polling the folk ;-}
But regarding the taxonomy above, I'd just add that there is that illusive unnamed position that needs a name: Compatibilists (about determinism and FW, MR, and any AP needed for FW or MR, and about indeterminism and all those as long as the indeterminism isn't rampant) who either (a) believe we don't have FW or MR (perhaps because eliminativism about agency or mental states is true or metaphysical epiphenomenalism is true) or (b) worry that we don't have FW or MR or that we (c) have less FW and MR than we think, because of what the sciences of the mind suggest about human agency. I'm a compatibilist worrier, but I need a better name.
Joe, why couldn't one be a compatibilist about determinism and FW/MR but an incompatibilist about certain types of indeterminism and FW/MR, e.g., indeterminism that arises between an agent's well-reasoned and "identified-with" decision and her action such that there's a good chance she won't do what she decided. Isn't that the "soft determinist" argument?
Posted by: Eddy Nahmias | March 14, 2006 at 07:44 AM
Kip,
As far as I know, Hume was one of the first published hard compatibilists, but the concept dates back to the ancient greeks. In my schooling we were taught that hard compatibilism refers to the kind of compatibilism that requires determinism, and soft compatibilism refers to the kind of compatibilism that does not require determinism. In my experience, there seems to be a general concensus on the usage of these terms.
Regardless of the terminology at play, any D-MRCompatibilist + I-MRIncompatibilist position would suffice to fulfill Joe's inquiry, which was the point of my post. I'm not interested in debating terminology.
Lastly, regarding your dismissal of chaos theory, I suppose you can try to stipulate it away, but it is certainly dialetically useless. Chaos theory purports to pertain to all dynamical systems, so your stipulation that you can conceive of a world in which it does not pertain is highly questionable.
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 14, 2006 at 09:08 AM
Mark:
Some points.
1. I agree that, according to your usage, Hume would be a hard compatibilist (he might also be a hard compatibilist according to my usage; he seems to have waffled on this issue). But Joe's challenge stipulated not just that such a position/argument exists, but that it cannot be generalized to free will denialism. For the reasons Joe and I have mentioned, it would seem that views such as Hume's could be so generalized. Hume was an I-MRIncompatibilist because he thought indeterminism would necessarily undermine the connections between agents and their actions. But, as in the far away galaxy example, indeterminism does not necessarily undermine these connections. So I think (although we can never know!) that, if confronted by these arguments, Hume would weaken his claim: only certain kinds of indeterminism are incompatible with moral responsibility.
2. About the semantic point: I don't want to argue about labels too much either (let's bring out the asterisks!), but it is important to be, in some sense, consistent about the way we use terms. The only evidence I've seen that the term "hard compatibilism" has ever referred to the view you describe is your pair of claims about schooling and a "general consensus." In contrast, I know that Kane, Watson, and Clark have used the term "hard compatibilism" to refer to concepts that are quite distinct from yours. It would be surprising if none of them had known of this consensus about your usage, or if, knowing it, they had ignored it. I would be interested to know what any of the other Gardeners take hard compatibilism to mean?
3. About chaos theory (after doing a little research!). It is not at all clear to me that a multi-galaxy system (or the system of your choice) is chaotic, or even dynamic, in the sense you describe. For one, chaotic systems seem to be deterministic by definition (see, for example, the wikipedia article on chaos theory). So the fact that the galaxy I describe is indeterministic would seem to prevent it from being chaotic. Furthermore, although physicists and mathematicians have a number of model chaotic systems (e.g. "double pendulum", "logistic map", "bouncing balls"), I can find no support for the claim that two distant galaxies would form such a system. So it is not clear that such galaxies would be chaotic, in this universe. Finally, even if they are chaotic in this universe, I can *easily* conceive of a far away quantum particle having no effect upon my life. If this wasn't easily conceivable, it wouldn't motivate the concerns that Joe and I, amongst others, express about freedom entailing determinism. Besides, I thought soft libertarians like Kane, and not compatibilists, reached dubious conclusions about how chaos theory and quantum mechanics affect human agency. But aren't you a compatibilist?
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 14, 2006 at 11:42 AM
Kip,
Disclaimer: You can either take my word for it that your understanding of the implications of chaos theory is flawed or you can insist that you have it right. I am not going to debate you on a subject that you (admittedly) know very little of.
What I will say is that your last point about conceivability prompts me to wonder what you mean by "conceivability". Many, such as Alvin Plantinga, have argued that logical possibility bounds conceivability. If that is true, then conceivability claims containing logically dubious content (e.g. {I can conceive of a world where 1 + 1 = 3} or {I can conceive of a world containing round squares}) cannot suffice for establishing counter-examples to other claims. I, for one, agree with this bounded view of conceivability.
Continuing on, your suggestion was that we were to imagine a world in which determinism would be true, except for a single one misbehaving particle in a far away galaxy. You suggested that this one misbehaving particle would not significantly disrupt things and that world would still behave in ways relevantly similar to our own world. Finally, you concluded that this story serves as a counter-example to the Hard Compatibilist position. Correct?
My point is that in any world where chaos theory is correct, it is logically impossible for micro-level events not to have macro-level effects in later iterations of the system. So, your proposed counter-example obviously begs the question against chaos theory. Since it is presumable that the tenets of chaos theory are features of the causal-mechanics of our world, you have the burden of establishing the dialectical relevance of a world lacking those features.
I do not think there is any "easy" way around it for you. As far as I see it, you have to either:
You are welcome to attempt either (1) or (2) (if you have enough time on your hands and the appropriate mathematical background to engage the source materials — although I doubtful whether sufficiently generic criteria could be established to make [2] approachable), but the course of action I recommend is (3).Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 14, 2006 at 05:05 PM
Mark,
Considering that you did not mention the label issue in your last post, I'll drop it. This leaves the chaos issue and, related to it, the far away galaxy example.
First of all, I want to note that the claim that you will not argue with me, because I don’t understand everything about chaos theory, seems both unfair and convenient. I may not understand all of chaos theory (and I doubt that you do), but I think I understand enough to justify a rebuttable presumption that your argument does fail, and for reasons I mentioned and which you have not addressed. These reasons were that:
1. Chaotic systems are deterministic and the galaxy in my example is indeterministic, by stipulation.
2. Chaos theory only has implications for chaotic systems, but you have not shown that a far away galaxy, in connection with this galaxy, is such a system.
If you refuse to engage these arguments, then I don’t see how you can expect to convince me or anyone else that you are correct. And please don't think that I am unprepared for the math and physics involved; I have a degree in electrical engineering from the University of Texas and am no stranger to math.
I also listed a third reason: I can conceive of a world such that a far away quantum particle does not exert any significant influence over my life (I agree with you that logical impossibility bounds conceivability). This leads to your claim:
"My point is that in any world where chaos theory is correct, it is logically impossible for micro-level events not to have macro-level effects in later iterations of the system."
There are three points to make about this:
1. Chaos theory is math and, to that extent, is true in every world. So instead of saying that chaos theory is true in a given world, it may be more accurate to say that it applies to certain aspects of a given world. This leads to the second point.
2. Although it is conceivable, I suppose, that the entire universe may or may not be chaotic (I know of no proof that it is and you have not offered one), a quick glance at the wikipedia article shows that chaos theory typically applies to narrower aspects of a given world: plate tectonics, population growth, turbulence in fluid motion, radioengineering, oscillation in radio circuits, etc. (all of these are cited in the wikipedia article).
3. You claim that if chaos theory applied to a given system, then it would be logically impossible for that system not to exhibit chaotic behavior (e.g. sensitivity to initial conditions). This seems true. But from this premise it does not follow that my claim (that I can imagine that a far away quantum particle might not influence my own life) is false. This is so because the world I am imagining need not be the world you describe, where chaos theory applies (the organization of matter would be different; not the math). But, if moral responsibility entails determinism, then this should be impossible in *every* world, not just in the world you describe where chaos theory applies. So I can imagine a counter-example to that entailment, and it is therefore false.
The problem, I think, is that you have confused the claim "chaos theory is mathematically correct and applies in certain domains" with the claim "chaos theory is mathematically correct and the entire universe, as well as any two galaxy system, is a chaotic system." Although the former seems true, I know of no reason, and you have not given me any reason, to think that the latter is.
In summary, let me address the options you give me. I think I have defended both 1 and a weaker 2. I defended 1 by noting that the entailment (mr->determinism), to be true, must work in *all* worlds, and not just "in any world where chaos theory is correct." But mr->determinism will fail for any two galaxy system such that chaos theory does not apply to it, and you have not shown that chaos theory applies to all two galaxy systems. So the entailment remains unsupported. I defended a weaker 2 by noting that "even in light of the causal-mechanics described by chaos theory a distant singularity" need not have a relevant impact on my own life, because you have not shown that the two-galaxy system I describe is chaotic. So even if chaos theory is mathematically correct, it need not apply.
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 14, 2006 at 06:32 PM
Kip,
To answer the worry you just presented seems simple enough — I did not realize that that was the level of disagreement we were having. What I have said previously in this thread can easily be turned into a modal argument against your conclusion, and would go something like this:
I believe that leaves you with the three options I mentioned earlier... or you could approach this argument directly and take issue with one or more of its premises.Joe,
I don't see how this argument could be generalized to support free will denial. Does that mean I win the prize? :)
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 14, 2006 at 07:33 PM
Mark:
Well I'm glad that this comment will be shorter than my last one! I don't think your counter-argument works, and for a reason I've already mentioned. As I wrote in my last post:
"You claim that if chaos theory applied to a given system, then it would be logically impossible for that system not to exhibit chaotic behavior (e.g. sensitivity to initial conditions). This seems true. But from this premise it does not follow that my claim (that I can imagine that a far away quantum particle might not influence my own life) is false. This is so because the world I am imagining need not be the world you describe, where chaos theory applies (the organization of matter would be different; not the math). But, if moral responsibility entails determinism, then this should be impossible in *every* world, not just in the world you describe where chaos theory applies. So I can imagine a counter-example to that entailment, and it is therefore false."
So, in order to defend mr->determinism, you would need to show that it holds in every world, and not just in any which, according to your stipulation, has the relevant chaotic feature. But, as I also noted before, you have not shown that a two galaxy system must be chaotic in *any* given world, much less that a two galaxy system must be chaotic in *all* worlds. Instead, all your counter-argument does is *stipulate*, without proof, that some world (namely, World X) does. In other words, from the beginning, you have just stipulated that chaos theory applies (or can apply) to the two galaxy system I describe, and I have objected: "you are just stipulating this without proving it." Given that you continue to offer no proof, my objection stands.
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 14, 2006 at 10:25 PM
Kip,
The modal argument I provided is sufficiently general to address your concerns regarding N-galaxies, N-dimensions, or any other fathomable situation involving some deterministic systems being influenced by some indeterministic elements.
Unless you have it in mind that galaxies have no influence upon one another, but I know of no astrophysistis who would accept that idea. But, even if there is a possible world in which there are two galaxies that have no influence upon each other, we can just restructure the argument from focusing on world-determinism to scope-determinism: Hard Compatibilism would then become the position that responsibility is only possible across scopes where determinism holds. This variant of Hard Compatibilism (which preserves all of the main features of the broader version) is immune to the type of counter-example you've been describing.
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 14, 2006 at 11:25 PM
Kip,
After thinking about it more, I think it is possible to prove that Hard Compatibilism is compatible with world-indeterminism, but still requires what I called "scope-determinism" in my previous post. And after thinking about *that* for a while, I really think that's what Hard Compatibilists have been saying all along: that the scope of an agent's action(s) must be free of the influence of any indeterministic forces in order for responsibility to issue.
I think this is the kind of position that Joe was inquiring about: one that simply says responsibility is incompatible with indeterminism. I am not defending Hard Compatibilism here -- I am just arguing that it is the kind of view that Joe was looking for.
Anyway, here's the kind of case that can prove that Hard Compatibilism is compatible with world-indeterminism:
According to traditional Hard Compatibilism, Joe is definitely is responsible for his actions at T0 and at T1, but he is not responsible for his actions on or after T2. Thus, we can conclude that Hard Compatibilist accounts are really concerned with scope-determinism, and that world-determinism is irrelevant.That said, the Hard Compatibilist may still have grounds to argue that responsibility is metaphysically incompatible with world-indetermism (since indeterministic forces will always destabalize deterministic systems), even though he conceeds that responsibility is logically compatible with world-determinism.
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 15, 2006 at 12:01 AM
Mark:
I just finished writing a long answer to your first post! In that post, I continued to argue that my far away galaxy example works.
In your second post, you say that Hard Compatibilism is compatible with “world-indeterminism.” It is not clear, however, what you mean by Hard Compatibilism. Do you mean your original claim that moral responsibility entails determinism (note that determinism implies world-determinism, the “world” modifier seems redundant)? Or do you mean the narrower version mentioned in your last post: moral responsibility implies that the local scope is deterministic? It is also worth noting that, as I’ve mentioned before, you are the only person I know who uses the term “hard compatibilism” in this way; several other philosophers use the term to imply something quite different (Kane and Watson use the term to refer to compatibilist theories that have less stringent historical requirements for moral responsibility; Clark uses it to refer to compatibilist theories that do not soften our reactive attitudes).
It is not clear what you mean by saying that Hard Compatibilism, a philosophical proposition, is compatible with indeterminism, an empirical question. You write:
“According to traditional Hard Compatibilism, Joe is definitely is responsible for his actions at T0 and at T1, but he is not responsible for his actions on or after T2. Thus, we can conclude that Hard Compatibilist accounts are really concerned with scope-determinism, and that world-determinism is irrelevant.”
I agree with you that a compatibilist such as Hume should not find certain kinds of indeterminism threatening (as in the far away galaxy example). Of course, our original dispute involved the claim that moral responsibility entails determinism. Am I to assume that you are dropping your objection, based on chaos theory, to the far away galaxy example?
I also want to address another claim you made (and this may help explain our dispute about chaos theory):
“At time T2 the influences of the indeterminstic forces from the singularity have had measurable effect upon every other particle in the universe (since the rest of the universe behaves deterministically, and thus chaotically).”
Here you claim that:
Determinism->a singularity (a single particle?) will eventually have an effect on every other particle in the universe
Determinism->the universe behaves chaotically
But neither of these conclusions follow. Determinism does imply that any given particle or bit of information will eventually ripple out and affect every other particle or bit. It just implies that any given state of the universe entails a unique future. Imagine, for example, that all particle or bits are grouped into pairs, and each member of a pair only influences the other member. Then there could be determinism but no rippling. Similarly, determinism does not imply that the universe behaves chaotically. That chaotic systems are deterministic is, if anything, a necessary but not sufficient condition of being chaotic. For example, consider the two dimensional cellular automata which follows the rule: shaded cell->shaded cell; non-shared cell->shaded cell. This system will be deterministic but not chaotic (unlike other two dimension cellular automata, which are both deterministic and chaotic, such as Wolfram’s Rule 30; see http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Rule30.html).
In summary, you seem to have abandoned your objection, based on chaos theory, to my far away particle example. To the extent that I was only defending that example, there is no need to continue arguing. Since then, you’ve made further, and distinct, claims (such as your claim that “hard compatibilism… requires… scope-determinism”) but it is not clear to me what you mean by them or how they are relevant.
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 15, 2006 at 01:32 AM
Kip,
I conceeded the point about the logical compatability of Hard Compatiblism (the thesis that responsibility entails determinism — it shouldn't matter if I'm the only one in the world using it this way since I have defined it and am using it consistently in this thread) and world-indeterminism because I introduced a case that actually demonstrates the point clearly. Given that concession, has Hard Compatibilism been thwarted? No. Simply interpret "responsibility entails determinism" as either a logical thesis referring to scope-determinism or as a metaphysical thesis referring to either world- or scope-determinism.
Regarding your point about possible worlds which are deterministic, but not chaotic: if the world contains a number of chaotic systems that do not effect one another and none of these systems could conceivably contain an agent, it is hard to see how such a world is relevantly similar to the kind of world that a Hard Compatibilist has in mind — since Hard Compatibilist accounts require worlds which are conducive to the transmition of information throughout causal systems and are suitable environments for agent(s) to exhibit responsibility-relevant features.
Posted by: Mark Smeltzer | March 15, 2006 at 08:05 AM
Mark:
I'm glad we agree that moral responsibility (at least by typical compatibilist standards) does not imply determinism. That was all I wanted to defend.
About chaos theory. You write:
"[I]f the world contains a number of chaotic systems that do not effect one another and none of these systems could conceivably contain an agent, it is hard to see how such a world is relevantly similar to the kind of world that a Hard Compatibilist has in mind — since Hard Compatibilist accounts require worlds which are conducive to the transmition of information throughout causal systems and are suitable environments for agent(s) to exhibit responsibility-relevant features."
I haven't said anything about such worlds, which contains a number of isolated chaotic systems, and none of which can "conceivably contain an agent." So that point seems irrelevant. Instead, I was just challenging the claim, that determinism implies that the universe is a chaotic system. We seem to agree about this, and so there is no need to further argue.
Posted by: Kip Werking | March 15, 2006 at 10:42 AM